10-06-2003, 08:57 PM
Also,
You said that the peshitta manuscripts agreed amongst themselves. So why does Murdock have notes to the side about ancient manuscripts not having certain text items. That is called an interpolation. That means the text was revised at one point. Dare I say it was revised to the Greek? Same interpolations and such, exact almost.
I thought these manuscripts were the same, and all said the same? What is going on here with this?
I'm just asking questions here. And I havent even got to chap 2
You said that the peshitta manuscripts agreed amongst themselves. So why does Murdock have notes to the side about ancient manuscripts not having certain text items. That is called an interpolation. That means the text was revised at one point. Dare I say it was revised to the Greek? Same interpolations and such, exact almost.
I thought these manuscripts were the same, and all said the same? What is going on here with this?
I'm just asking questions here. And I havent even got to chap 2