Question for Paul

[BrotherLarry]

Speaking of 1st John, I noticed that the Peshitta says "false Messiah" in all the verses where the Greek says "antichrist". What's the story there? I posted this before but no one answered me the first time <!-- s --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/sad.gif" alt="" title="Sad" /><!-- s -->

Shlama Christina,

The anti- in Antichrist can mean "instead of" or "(over) against." It seems odd the more I think about it though...
because the Greek usually uses the prefix "pseudo-" for 'false'. pseudo-prophetes for 'false prophet, etc.
I'm not sure why Zorba (forum expression for 'Greek translator') did not follow suit here as well with 'pseudo-Christos.'
You'd think he would of !!! ....hmmmm <!-- s:dontgetit: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/dontgetit.gif" alt=":dontgetit:" title="Dont Get It" /><!-- s:dontgetit: --> <!-- s --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/huh.gif" alt="" title="Huh" /><!-- s -->

Shlama w'Burkate, Larry Kelsey