04-17-2022, 04:41 AM
Hi, I am confused, In Matthew 28:1 It has "in the evening of the SABBATH, as it was twilight (on) the first of the week..."
My confusion is; As the Jewish Sabbath runs from evening to evening. (Twilight to twilight; Sun going down, to Sun going down).
The grammar appears to be in question in this verse compared to other Gospels verses? Surely the time interval mentioned here has to fix the time around late in the "day" of the SABBATH, as the sun was going "down"... To me, it's twilight around 6 PM?
My question is; In the translated Aramaic from the Interlinear, what does "evening of the SABBATH" mean? In the context of this verse. Is it an Idiom? Source of western confusion?
Have a missed something? Please enlighten me
Thanks, David
My confusion is; As the Jewish Sabbath runs from evening to evening. (Twilight to twilight; Sun going down, to Sun going down).
The grammar appears to be in question in this verse compared to other Gospels verses? Surely the time interval mentioned here has to fix the time around late in the "day" of the SABBATH, as the sun was going "down"... To me, it's twilight around 6 PM?
My question is; In the translated Aramaic from the Interlinear, what does "evening of the SABBATH" mean? In the context of this verse. Is it an Idiom? Source of western confusion?
Have a missed something? Please enlighten me
Thanks, David
