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2 Corinthians 5:21 - sin ... offering ?
I'm struggling with understanding the meaning of the "great exchange" verse.

Anyone can shed a light why "offering" word can be added after "sin" in translation ?

I heard all sort of strange teachings on this verse (too simplistic?) but none that the spirit within me agrees with. Help.

What does it mean "made him to be sin for us" and is it clear who is who in this sentence , grammatically and contextually ?

Not trying to start theological/soteriological discussion, just looking for insights how others understand (those alive and not only, historical interpretations welcome) and understood this verse/chapter/Paul's teaching.

Is v21 a "closing bracket" matching v14b-15 ?
It's defiantly speaking of The Messiah there...

Have you considered 1 Peter 2:24, and what it says about our sins being being put to death in His body on the Cross? How did our sins get into His body?

Or Romans did God condemn our sins
Quote:in His flesh
? Or in Galatians 3:13, how is it that He
Quote:became a curse
, to redeem us from the curse of the Law?

As to the translation being justified with the added "offering" as in sin offering, Magiera says that the 2nd instance of the word "sin" is an "antanaclasis" a stylistic scheme of repeating a single word or phrase, but with a different meaning, the 2nd instance having the meaning of "sin offering".

I'm not sure if that was Shlikha Paul's intent, but it may be an answer to the question.

As to translation having another possible reading, while it could be translated the usual way, as I look closely at the Aramaic text here, it seems to me that a possible rendering of the verse in English could be thus:

"For, He who had no sin, acted on account of our sin, so that, we would be the righteousness of Alaha, in Him."

If others more adept at translation and more aware of the rules, can check to see if this is a possible reading, please do so, as I don't want to misrepresent what it can't possibly say.



enarxe Wrote:What does it mean "made him to be sin for us" and is it clear who is who in this sentence , grammatically and contextually ?

enarxe, the KJV apparently translates it that way, but I think they somehow got it reversed. I'm not sure if this makes it any clearer, but this is how I interpret the Peshitta as rendering it:

"Such he thus of a sinfulness not knowing he was, on account of you, the sinfulness made him; that by him, we are to become the charitableness of God."

Or as I would attempt to explain it; Yeshua was the sinless one. But our sins created the need for him, and by him, we become the beneficiaries of God's mercy.

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