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Grammar in Long Ending of Mark
As early as the mid 2nd century 150 A.D., to the late 2nd century, as witnessed by Justin Martyr, Tatian, Ireneaus, and Tertullian, we can see that these verses were present in the early copies of the NT, which were written down in the three main languages that the NT was represented in at that time.

They are seen to be found in the Aramaic, Greek, and Latin copies of their day, and this was as early as just one generation from the death of the last Apostle of Christ. Clearly these verses are from the 1st century and Apostolic times. And there is never any mention of them, as I have seen, of their being any thing but original to the text...Why these words were not copied in some much later Ms. is the question.

Mark 16:9?20 is preserved in its traditional Greek form in about a dozen uncials (the earliest being Codex Alexandrinus) and in all undamaged minuscules.


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Re: Grammar in Long Ending of Mark - by Thirdwoe - 11-18-2013, 02:02 AM

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