Thread Rating:
  • 0 Vote(s) - 0 Average
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
  • 5
Phil 2:9,10
I would like to know what the Aramaic says in Verse 10 for the name Jesus. We have just learned that Jesus (in verse 5) having suffered, died and then being raised and exalted is then "given a name above every name" in verse 9; but in the Greek for verse 10 we still have the same name Jesus. I understand that in Aramaic, like Hebrew, the name of Jesus is actually Yeshua (he will save). I noticed however in the Septuagint that Joshua (Yehoshua) also gets translated into Greek as Jesus (Iesous). Remember that Moses changed Hosea's name (Deliverer/one who saves) to Yehoshua by simply adding a yod at the start of the name, thus rendering it "Yahweh saved". Is it possible that the Name Jesus was given after his resurrection follows the same course... from Yeshua (Iesous in Greek) to Yehoshua (same Iesous in Greek)? A big declaration yet totally fogged out in the Greek translation. Hope someone can help with this.
I think this is important because Isaiah 45:23 clearly indicates that every knee will bow before Yahweh. Paul also tells us in Romans 14:11 that "every knee will bow before Theos/God. Perhaps the new name Jesus was given was in fact "Yahweh saved" and that is the name he carries today, "to the glory of God the Father".
Well...since He is Eteranl YHWH manifested in and through our humanity, and is called Lord YHWH in many key places in the NT, and was Lord YHWH, God The Word pre-incarnate as the Apostles teach, then it's already true of Him. Eshu' is Lord YHWH God The Word, who who manifested Hiself in our humanity to redeem us from the curse of sin and death.

His name in Aramaic in Phil 2:10 is Yud-Shin-Waw,Aiyn = Yeshua or Eshu'


Forum Jump:

Users browsing this thread: 1 Guest(s)