Word play in aramaic and syriac

[The Texas RAT]

But such 'simple' application, I fear, leads you to believe this constitutes some kind of victory on your part.

This conversation reminds me of the Proverb that says something like " answer a fool in his fooly and he will think he is wise, do not answer a fool in his and he will think he is wise".

However, it reminds me of an anecdote from Talmud Yerushalemi that makes me feel like Rabbi Hia:

Rav sha'el l'Rabbi Khiya, "Raba w'le[th e]na khamey l'Rabbi m'qabel `aloi Malkuth Shamaim?" Amar leh, "Kadh t'kh'meyneh yahev yadheh `al apoi ((Think about it: Perhaps kaf `al apoi! <!-- satisfied: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/satisfied.gif" alt="atisfied:" title="Satisfied" /><!-- satisfied: --> )), hu m'qabel `aloi `ol Malkuth Shamaim."

Have fun with that. <!-- s --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/cool1.gif" alt="" title="Cool" /><!-- s -->

I am afraid I have wasted enuff of my precious time without chasing your rabbits.

It seems the only right thing left to do is bid you adoo and leave you to that which you prefer to believe. Any have a good one if your spirit will allow. Over and out <!-- s:listen: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/listen.gif" alt=":listen:" title="Listen" /><!-- s:listen: -->

[Thomas]

@ Steve Caruso

"First, under the current model the Peshitta was not just a straight revision (of course under the model towards more Byzantine readings) but also a consolidation. The two OS MSS we have in many places disagree with each other more than they do the Peshitta."

Can someone explain the evidence behind this "model"? Steve said here that the Peshitta was not a straight revision but also a consolidation. Has this been demonstrated? Where is the evidence for this? Can someone (*anyone*) please support this for me.

"/Rbwly/ only occurs in Syr(s) in Mark 10:51 and John 20:16, and in doing so agrees with the Greek tradition, making the Peshitta's reading there another outlier."

What does Steve mean by "agrees with the Greek tradition"? No Greek manuscript reads "rabbouli" in either of these places, so how can he say that OSS (Old Syriac Sinaiticus) "agrees with the Greek tradition"?