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Gospel of John shows our Lord to be Mary's only child
Stephen Silver Wrote:
distazo Wrote:It is clear that Mary and Jawsef consumed their marriage and that eternal virginity has nothing to do with any Godly will or a prophesy which was for Maryam.

Shlama Distazo:
How have you determined by scripture that it is clear that Joseph and Mary had sex at any time? It appears to me tho be a Western Protestant view that Mary and Joseph had to consumate their marriage by having sex together. I'm not a Roman Catholic, however it appears to me that the term "perpetual virgin", used by Roman Catholics is not without meit.
The Talmud may be quoted (I'll have to researchthe passage), making it a necessity for a man and his wife to have sex to consumate their joining as husband and wife but I have not found this in the TaNaKh or the New Testament. So, in my personal view it is my understanding that Miriam was a perpetual virgin, this being the gracious sacrifice that Joseph and Miryam made throughout their entire lives. This present generation doesn't appear to be able to relate to marriage that does not include cohabitation but it is really not such a difficult thing to grasp.
In reflection, if I were Joseph, to whom Alaha appeard in a dream I would be in awe as to the implications of the virginity of Miryam and the impending birth of the Son of Alaha. If the text does not specifically say that Joseph and Miryam had sex after Yeshua was born, it would be presumptuous of me to consider it as fact. Your thoughts please and those of the forum!

Stephen Silver
Dukhrana Biblical Research
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Shlama akhi,

while i have no issue at all with the thought that Maryam never had any other children (Messiah's "giving" her to Yuwkhanan at the cross makes sense this way), it seems to me that she at least had relations with Yawseph AFTER the birth of Yeshu'a.

i get this from Matt. 1:25.

is there a different way that the CoE approaches the term "knew" - KHAKMAH? can it be rightly understood without the sexual meaning? if so, how is that done?

i'm not against her remaining a virgin by any means, but i 'm just not seeing it explicitly stated as such by the NT, and the above passage makes me think otherwise very strongly. any clarification would be helpful, though!

Chayim b'Moshiach,

Messages In This Thread
[No subject] - by Paul Younan - 04-18-2011, 03:11 PM
Re: - by distazo - 04-18-2011, 08:17 PM
Re: Gospel of John shows our Lord to be Mary's only child - by Burning one - 04-19-2011, 07:31 PM
[No subject] - by Paul Younan - 04-19-2011, 08:59 PM
Re: - by Burning one - 04-19-2011, 09:51 PM
[No subject] - by Paul Younan - 04-19-2011, 10:07 PM

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