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Randolph O. Yeager
Here are some objections when I quoted some material from this site. In this series of posts, a contributor here makes the assertion based on the grammar of Mark that the gospel shows a semitic influence based upon various grammarical construction. Whicha re suppose to be more "Semitic" that proper Greek grammar. Here is some rebuttal statements, to that theory.

Blake aka "the Russian" or vs3adguy

I didn't want to get too involved in this subject, because there's a mountain of stuff you've gotta sift through to get really well acquainted with the subject, but there are a few things here in this post that strike me as being very incomplete in its argumentation.

Greek will tolerate putting the adjective after the noun, but again, this shift creates a new form of emphasis.

Not true, there are several adjective-noun positions in Greek with equal emphasis. If I'm not mistaken, Wallace's grammar covers that rather well. For example, (very transliterated) ho anthropos ho agothos = ho agothos anthropos. Both mean, "the good man", no emphasis shift from one to the other.

I wound answer the general argument that some Greek NT passages sound like they're translated from Hebrew in a general sense: could it not simply be because the writers spoke Aramaic and struggled with their Greek? You could certainly tell that I was English if you read anything I write in French. It does not necessarily follow that when I write something in French, I write it in English first and then translate, but my English way of thinking permeates my French oeuvre ??crit. And I think it is entirely the case with some writers, such as John, Mark and the writer of 2 Peter, that their Greek grammar is at times so bad we can only attribute it to someone writing without a fluency in Greek.

Why would Elohim inspire a man to write the New Testament in a language he didn't know well enough to make it sound naturally Greek? And if they were Divinely inspired to write it, then why wouldn't Elohim be able to make it sound naturally Greek despite their human abilities? After all, if it's word-for-word inspired, could not Elohim give them the natural sounding wording to make it pass for something written by a Greek? If the Greek NT is inspired, then why did Elohim make it sound like an unnatural attempt by a Hebrew / Aramaic speaker to use Greek the way he thinks in Hebrew?

This person here confuses mechanical dictation with verbal, plenary inspiration, so it's not really worth much of a response.

Messages In This Thread
Randolph O. Yeager - by Larry Kelsey - 10-19-2004, 05:16 AM
Scholarship & noise - by gbausc - 10-20-2004, 10:34 AM
Re: Scholarship & noise - by oozeaddai - 10-21-2004, 03:37 PM
Re: Scholarship & noise - by oozeaddai - 10-21-2004, 03:52 PM
Re: Scholarship & noise - by oozeaddai - 10-21-2004, 03:53 PM
Re: Scholarship & noise - by oozeaddai - 10-21-2004, 03:55 PM
[No subject] - by gbausc - 10-22-2004, 09:50 PM
[No subject] - by oozeaddai - 10-23-2004, 03:02 PM
Ignorance dies hard - by gbausc - 10-24-2004, 06:42 PM

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