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Interpolation in the peshitta text - Printable Version

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- Dave - 07-14-2005

Dave, I never did hear your reasonings as to why the peshitta was rejected because of the interpolation they found. Do you think that they are incorrect in their validation of this section?


Re: Interpolation in the peshitta text - judge - 07-17-2005

[quote="Dave"]After Mister Bauscher made a declaration of the peshitta not having a single interpolation, I decided to do a search:

Are you able to outline what your argument is?

What is your precise explanation for what happened?
Until you do this you aren't even making a case at all.

Thanks in advance.


- Dave - 07-18-2005

Thanks in advance?

Is that like the phrase: "K thx, pls drive thru?"

Anyways,

This is awareness, not college. Would you like a point paper on how obvious this is interpolation is, or would a simple example here do?

Trying to back someone in the corner by making them provide a precise reason or explantion for the inclusion of the interpolation is odd don't you think?

Do you even realise what you just asked?


It's a simple case of expanding thought. Look at it:

Quote:accepted his word and believed

Interpolation because it is an expounding thought. It is doubling up the preceding thought, "accepted his word." Looks like it could be explanatory, but most likely doctrinal by whoever did it.

I would not think I would be able to provide a "precise explanation" as to why this was placed in there, sorry.

Oh, thanks in advance, heh.


- Dave - 07-18-2005

What about these folks here mister judge?

Quote:This expression, appearing in the Aramaic Peshitta, we believe is internal evidence that the Peshitta was nothing but an Aramaic translation of the Greek text that would later be used for the King James Version.

This was my original post, are they not putting it in the format that suits you? Care to comment on their assessment?


- trettep - 07-18-2005

While I believe the Peshitta is obviously not authentic to the original Word of God and believe it tampered with - even if it were to be derived from the Greek doesn't mean its not one of the best texts that we have. Hopefully, bias doesn't get in the way and if the Peshitta is derived from Greek its hoped that those in the authority of its content will acknowledge such. I believe that if the Peshitta is derived from Greek then it becomes a much more intriguing text. For example, why would it be derived to Greek if Aramaic was the spoken tongue in which you would expect to find many documents (might mean that early Aramaic texts were destroyed). Then if that were the case it would raise the wonder as to why did the Greek texts survive in such numbers. So anything that makes the Peshitta looked derived from Greek further underscores the possibility that the early Aramaic documents were destroyed. Since it seems more common between the Scholars of Greek and Aramaic on this subject that the Early Church founders spoke in an Aramaic script of some form. Additionally, if the Peshitta were a derived from the Greek it could shed further light in determining the tampering of other Greek manuscripts. I believe there is a very good possiblity that this document just based on the many of the arguments seen here was translated from Greek texts into the Aramaic. I have no bias towards one or the other for all I care about is the Truth.

Paul


- judge - 07-18-2005

Dave Wrote:Trying to back someone in the corner by making them provide a precise reason or explantion for the inclusion of the interpolation is odd don't you think?

Do you even realise what you just asked?


.

Dave if you are incapable of formulating the data you copied in a coherent argument then you are wasting everyones time don't you think?


- Dave - 07-19-2005

Sorry mister Judge, It is supplied in a very coherent format.