use of OS by ancient Aramaic-speaking Christians

[yuku]

Well, I think it's important to clarify some of these old issues here, although I'm not really interested in continuing this discussion with Akhi Paul at this time.

When groundless personal accusations are directed at you over and over again, and when you're described as a "snake", I think it's pretty obvious that this sort of a discussion has left the bounds of normal scholarly exchange, and moved into something else entirely... Sorry, I'm not interested, unless I receive a personal apology from Akhi Paul for these unkind things that he's been saying about me.

I wish people would argue with what I said, rather than with what I didn't say. I never used the word "pride", for example, and yet this is quoted over and over again as if I said it.

I'm only interested in scientific discussion here. Anything outside of that, I'm not interested, sorry.

I've been asking people to clarify their position on the question of faith vs. science, but apparently this subject is too sensitive? I don't know why should this be so.

Why else would he [Yuri] not have answered this post?

http://www.peshitta.org/forum/viewtopic.php?t=228

Or this one?

http://www.peshitta.org/forum/viewtopic.php?t=273

How about this little cutie?

http://www.peshitta.org/forum/viewtopic.php?t=400

Or this mother of all examples?

http://www.peshitta.org/forum/viewtopic.php?t=231

Or this father of all examples?

http://www.peshitta.org/forum/viewtopic.php?t=224

OK, let us examine these cases.

Mar Aphrahat and Mattai 5:16
<!-- l --><a class="postlink-local" href="http://www.peshitta.org/forum/viewtopic.php?t=228">viewtopic.php?t=228</a><!-- l -->

Mar Aphrahat here agrees 100% with the Peshitta,

And with the Greek!

but here are the problems with Old Scratch:

(1) Sinaiticus has a Lamad Proclitic before "qdam" - and Mar Aphrahat does not.

Well, since such minor divergencies are found in many Peshitta MSS, according to Akhi Paul, himself, they seem to be unimportant...

(2) Both Sinaiticus and Cureton have "Shapir" (beautiful) before "works", whereas Mar Aphrahat and the Peshitta agree against them with "Tawa" - "good".

And the Greek also has /kala/ = good. So maybe the OS preserves an earlier text here?

(3) Finally, both Old Scratch (s) and © have "Bnay Anasha" (men) as distinct words - whereas Mar Aphrahat and the Peshitta have them combined.

Again, such minor divergencies don't seem very important, since they are also found in many Peshitta MSS...

Now, what was this example supposed to prove? I don't quite understand.

========

Mar Aphrahat and Yukhanan 10:30
<!-- l --><a class="postlink-local" href="http://www.peshitta.org/forum/viewtopic.php?t=273">viewtopic.php?t=273</a><!-- l -->

There's no change in meaning here. I've addressed this passage before.

========

Mar Aphrahat and 1Corinthians 2:9
<!-- l --><a class="postlink-local" href="http://www.peshitta.org/forum/viewtopic.php?t=400">viewtopic.php?t=400</a><!-- l -->

This has nothing to do with the OS.

========

Mar Aphrahat and Luqa 15:8
<!-- l --><a class="postlink-local" href="http://www.peshitta.org/forum/viewtopic.php?t=231">viewtopic.php?t=231</a><!-- l -->

Two minor spelling divergencies, and one word different in SyC (but not in SyS).

========

Mar Aphrahat and Yukhanan 13:34
<!-- l --><a class="postlink-local" href="http://www.peshitta.org/forum/viewtopic.php?t=224">viewtopic.php?t=224</a><!-- l -->

The point of this is not clear to me. Nobody ever denied that Aphrahat often paraphrases.

As I wrote here,

[quote]

Patristic Quotes & the OS
<!-- l --><a class="postlink-local" href="http://www.peshitta.org/forum/viewtopic.php?t=319">viewtopic.php?t=319</a><!-- l -->

For one thing, it will not surprise anyone if you find some examples where Aphrahat, the Peshitta, and the standard Greek all agree, and the OS reads something else (such as with your "Lazarus, come forth" quote). The real interesting cases would be those where Aphrahat and the Peshitta would agree _against_ the standard Greek, and the OS would read either with the Greek, or something entirely different.

[unquote]

In sum, I don't really understand what is the point of these examples. Are they supposed to prove something?

If some citations of Aphrahat agree with the Peshitta (and also with the Greek), this can be explained in a variety of ways. One can even grant that Aphrahat did sometimes use the Peshitta (although this isn't the only explanation possible).

But even if we were to grant that Aphrahat did use the Peshitta, how would this contradict his use of the Old Syriac, as well?

My main argument here is that Aphrahat made use of the Old Syriac. But his hypothetical use of the Peshitta does not necessarily contradict this.

Shlama,

Yuri.