Why did Rabulla make his own Aramaic gospels?

[Paul Younan]

Shlama Akhi Dave,

I'm not asking that you dismiss Ephraem because he belonged to the western arena. I'm asking that you just make note that in his western arena, many different textual families were circulating (for whatever reason.)

When you talk Peshitta, you are talking eastern, not western. Ephraem did not use the Peshitta - he was a Westerner. That's comparing the old apples and oranges thing.

The Arabic Diatesseron (translated directly from the Syriac) reads exactly like the Peshitta....so that tells me that the Syriac it was translated from read exactly like the Peshitta. So then that Aramaic copy of the Diatesseron proves that the harmony was created from the Peshitta gospels.

This is, again, an eastern copy and not a western one like Ephraem used. I don't care what happened in the west, in his arena. People have gone insane trying to figure that out. I'm not going to do any better than the millions of people who have pondered what the heck the western church was thinking at the time it was responsible for that big mess. That's their mess, not mine.

You have to seperate the two textual traditions as they are not the same historical entity!