Why did Rabulla make his own Aramaic gospels?

[Paul Younan]

Shlama Akhi Dave,

I think Akhan Keefa wrote a very important point above:

Another thing to consider is this, the Diatesseron is said to have been originally written in Aramaic, we have an Arabic translation of the Syriac that agrees 100% with the Peshitta. Which means that the Diatesseron originated from the Peshitta.

The only surviving Semitic witness to the Diatesseron, the Arabic translation, reads 100% the same way as the Peshitta against the Western-style texts (including Old Scratch.)

I'd like to bring up another couple of points. I don't know why they did the things in the west that they did. I don't pretend to have the answers. I know that it resulted in no less than FOUR major textual families.....FOUR major textual traditions.

I only know that I'm thankful the east didn't do the same things. If they had, we might have EIGHT major textual families today.

Akhi - this is a very important question I need to ask here: If the eastern church refused at all costs (even estrangement) to include 5 extra books from the Greek canon into their own canon - why would they alter the 22 books they already held to be canonical?