Why did Rabulla make his own Aramaic gospels?

[byrnesey]

wherever it disagreed with Bezae he translated the Greek and inserted it in to the Peshitta reading.

That's exactly the point. Why did he do this? Why did he make a Peshitta/Greek hybrid set of 4 Gospels to counter the harmonised Gospel, instead of just using the 4 pure Peshitta/o Gospels? If I were in his position, I could just say, hey let's kick D out and replace it with 4 seperated Gospels, might as well use the same 4 our Church has been using for centuries, whetehr Peshitta or Peshitto! The crux of the matter is what the Greek has to do with anything. If he was obsessed with fighting the single Gospel, why go to the Greek at all, when there were other options available, such as just using the seperate Gospels of the Peshitta and/or Peshitto.