09-15-2008, 07:58 PM
Paul, well said, I guess. This is a pretty huge clue in favor of NT Aramaic Primacy. If some or all of the New Testament was orginally penned in Greek, we would expect to see some of this type of "peculiar" syntax in at least some Greek literature outside of the New Testamen whether it is classical or koine. But you are saying that this "syntax" rule never-ever occurs outside of the Greek New Testament?? And that this type of grammer structure is found only in the Greek New Testament?? (Just to be sure). This would be almost a dead giveaway that in whatever NT letter or NT book follows this structure - that these letters/books would have semetic origin. Permit me to ask how often this structure "pops up" in the Greek NT and where (in other passages) are they?? (Other than the ones on this thread; if you want and time permitting).
Now, not to sound insulting, Paul, but what method did you derive to conclude that this syntax structure is never followed in Greek literature?? How do you , , an Aramaic speaker, sure that this syntax structure is never followed in 1st century Greek. Since Dave Bauscher contributed to this thread and is conversant in both Aramaic and Greek he may be able to establish this as a witness.. Thank-you, yes.
Graciously,
Mike
Now, not to sound insulting, Paul, but what method did you derive to conclude that this syntax structure is never followed in Greek literature?? How do you , , an Aramaic speaker, sure that this syntax structure is never followed in 1st century Greek. Since Dave Bauscher contributed to this thread and is conversant in both Aramaic and Greek he may be able to establish this as a witness.. Thank-you, yes.
Graciously,
Mike