1 Corinthians 8:6

[drmlanc]

ok, I don't wanna turn this into a spat here, just looking at sentence structure.

Here's Chris's translation that he posted:

But to us there is one, God the Father, where all (and we) are from by Lord YHWH Jesus Messiah where all (and we) are from.

Then Dan's:

But to(for) us there is One ALAHA the FATHER of whom came (into being) all things, and we in Him, and One MARYA Yeshu' Meshikha, by whom are all things, and we by Him.

Then the 2 I posted:

6 (MUR) yet to us, on our part, there is one God, the Father, from whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord, Jesus the Messiah, by whom are all things, and we also by him.
6 (LAMSA) To us there is one God, the Father, from whom comes every thing and by whom we live; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him.

Ok, what I wanna know, is the "and" there between the 2 titles listed in the Peshitta, as listed in 3 of the 4 translations. This is why I'm saying the sentence structure points towards a distinction of 2.

Again, I want this to remain calm here. I'm looking at this carefully.

Yeah I know about that, I acknowledged that I didn't know if it should say by or and etc. I couldn't find and in that sentence. But the word in question can mean "by" so I didn't know, I try to be unbiased see.

But even if it says AND, that has no real difference, and doesn't teach "two persons", because MarYah = Alaha anyway, and the first half shows that there is only one God, who is God the Father, Alaha Abba.