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Mk 1:41-42...
#1
Shlama Akhay:

Many scholars have notice the peculiarity in Mk 14:41 (and Par; I suppose you did as well) which reads in Greek:
kai ercetai to triton kai legei autoiv Kaqeudete to loipon kai anapauesqe apecei
jlqen wra idou paradidotai o uiov tou anqrwpou eiv tav ceirav twn amartwlwn


(KJV) And he cometh the third time, and saith unto them, Sleep on now, and take your rest: it is enough, the hour is come; behold, the Son of man is betrayed into the hands of sinners.

And then, in the following verse, Mk 14:42:
egeiresqe agwmen idou o paradidouv me jggiken

(KJV) Rise up, let us go; lo, he that betrayeth me is at hand.

Got the weird thing? Jesus finds the disciples sleeping (Cf. v.40), He AWAKES them just to say: ???keep sleeping, have your rest??? (imperative) and immediately (!), He adds: ???enough! Rise up, let???s go...??? Cruel, isn???t? Some explain that as an ???Irony??? (Mark is full of them, indeed) or, as usually, because of some suspected ???lost text??? (in the middle of these two verses), but maybe there???s another simple explanation...

NOTES
Let???s say that, as a matter of fact Kaqeudete can be:
a) verb imperative present active 2nd person plural OR
b) verb indicative present active 2nd person plural.
anapauesqe is clearly an imperative.
loipon
a) adj. rest, remaining, other;
b) adv. (to) loipon finally; from now on, henceforth; still; beyond that, in addition;
This expression lacks in some mss: A C D L W y 28 892.
apecei
impersonal = it is enough.
Some Greek mss. add: jlqen + to telov, ???came the FINAL??? (hour) = Peshitta.

Some translations have tried to overcome this difficulty, but obviously ???betraying the original Greek text???. Watch this one (NIV):

(41)Returning the third time, he said to them, "Are you still sleeping and resting? Enough! The hour has come. Look, the Son of Man is betrayed into the hands of sinners.
(42) Rise! Let us go! Here comes my betrayer!"

Solution? Again, Peshitta to the rescue!

(Mk 14:41)

[font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]F94 tt0w Frx t=m wxyntt0w Lykm wkmd Jwhl rm0w Nynbz tltd F0w
0y=xd Jwhydy0b 04n0d hrb Mlt4m 0hw[/font]



1. [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]wkmd[/font]
From: [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]Kmd[/font] , to sleep. This form can be one of these two:
a) Imperative Peal 2nd p. plural
b) Perfect third p. plural

2. [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]wxyntt0[/font]
From: [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]Xwn [/font] , to rest (in Ettafal with the same meaning). This form can be one of these two:
a) Imperative Ettafal 2nd p. plural
b) Perfect Ettafal 3rd p. plural

We still have the confusing [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]Lykm[/font] , whose meaning is: from now on, but also, ALREADY, or simply, NOW.

Consequently,

If we take both ambiguous verbs as Perfect we could get (something like) this:
(41) Coming the third time, he said to them, (wondering or admiring himself and yes, a little bit ironically): ???[So] THEY [already/now] got sleep and rest!). The final has arrived and the hour has come (...)
And then, the imperative of v. 42 comes in perfect coherence:
(42) Rise! Let us go! Here comes my betrayer!"

The difficult for such a translation would be the ???he said to them??? followed by verbs in ???3rd person plural???. I don???t know if this is regular in Aramaic, but in modern languages it is. One sometimes speaks ???as to a 3rd person??? (not exactly ???impersonal???) even when addressing to an direct interlocutor. The rest of the phrase ???the final hour...??? could be taken in this sense too, especially considering that Jesus is speaking about Himself, in third person! (???The Son of the Man...???).

Complicated? Well, I don???t know if the ???Ockham razor??? can be applied here... But I think that here we have ???3 in one???: a mistranlation, an split word and a contradiction explained by Peshitta. You tell me! (Critiques are welcome!)

[font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]Fwx0b[/font]
Ab. Valentin
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#2
Wow Akhi gret example. Makes more sense of the verse, and I wonder if Akhan Paul will have to change his interliner. As for being a split word, I don't think so, because the variants in the Greek don't really affect the meaning. From both the Byz and Alex you can see that it reads "sleep now and get your rest".
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#3
As for being a split word, I don't think so, because the variants in the Greek don't really affect the meaning. From both the Byz and Alex you can see that it reads "sleep now and get your rest".[/quote]

Shlama Akhi Chris:
You???re right, maybe I haven???t the ???split word??? definition still clear... I was thinking in some kind of ???split verb form??? instead, regarding the POLYSEMIC form of both verbs IN ARAMAIC (perfect/imperative) whence ALL (!) Greek mss and translations relied on them have misunderstood (in my poor opinion, let???s wait Akhi Paul???s expert discernment).

May I greet you for the New Year 2004? <!-- sBig Grin --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/happy.gif" alt="Big Grin" title="Happy" /><!-- sBig Grin -->
Fraternally,

Ab. Valentin
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#4
Split word is when there is a difference in the Greek texts, explained by the Aramaic. Semi-split word is when the difference between Aramaic and Greek is explained by the Aramaic. Semi-split word is just my pathetically sad attempt at creating a word (to go alongside Thadman's "split word" and "extraGospular"), and also to make it sound like split word as they are similar. Differences in various mss explained by Aramaic. So yeah, your example is a semi split word and a Contradiction.
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#5
May 2004 yield many more Peshitta proofs and examples, so I can plagiarise them in my second batch of Peshitta Primacy Proof articles <!-- sBig Grin --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/happy.gif" alt="Big Grin" title="Happy" /><!-- sBig Grin -->
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