Is MRYA the same as YHWH?

[abudar2000]

shlomo 'amkun,

Some base definitions:
moro (sing) (Emphatic) -- The Lord
morawoto (plural) (Emphatic) -- The Lords
more (sing) (Absolute/Construct) -- A Lord / Lord of
moray (plural) (Construct) -- Lords of
morayo (plural) (Emphatic) -- The Lords

moryo (sing) (Emphatic) -- Lord-Yah

Example of another irregular plural:
ido (sing) (Emphatic) -- The Hand
idayo (plural) (Emphatic) -- The Hands
iday (plural) (Construct) -- The Hands of

idyo (sing) (Emphatic) <= doesn't exist as a word

Comments:
morayo isn't the plural of moryo. moryo is a construct
of mor and yo. These type of constructs are common in
Semitic languages.

Col. 4:1
It starts with "morayo" and not "moryo" followed by a
plural verb of the 2nd person imperative.

I don't see the issue that you're having with the verses in
Matthew.

Here are a few examples from Aramaic liturgical texts:
teshbuhto laloho bamrawme <= Here we know that "aloho" refers to moryo, even thou they used the generic word for God
wlokh mor(y) shubho <= here "mor(y)" means "My Lord" and we know it refers to Jesus who is moryo
moro dramshe wamtaksono dkhul <= here "moro" means "Lord" and we know its refers to the Father who is moryo
moryo moran moro d'ire wadmalakhe <= here it says "Lord-Yah Our Lord The Lord ..."
lmoryo aloho dilan <= here it says "to Lord-Yah Our God"

push bashlomo,
keefa bar morun