Someone hates Maryah!!! :X >: :X >:

[Paul Younan]

Shlama Akhi,

Thats interesting, seeing as Hebrew makes quite a bit of use and Arabic makes enormous use of the definite article, I suppose one would have assumed that Aramaic being the 'father' of these languages would too.

Yes, but the Aramaic in many ways is more archaic. This is one of them. Hebrew and Arabic are more highly developed.

Yes you are right the Arabic comes from the Aramaic, I reckon it is possibly an Arabization of the word which became more 'absolute' once monotheism became established amongst the Arabians.

See: <!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://answering-islam.org/Books/Mingana/Influence/">http://answering-islam.org/Books/Mingana/Influence/</a><!-- m -->

But why is 'Mar' put in front of 'yah' rather than just putting out 'Yahovah' in its correct form?

Because they didn't want to write the sacred Name. They were early Jewish believers who had the same tradition in this regards as the "Elohists" who altered the OT readings to "Elohim" instead of the original "YHWH."

Also, "YHWH" has a meaning in Hebrew. It does not in Aramaic - in Aramaic, to say the same thing, would be "NHWH".

Besides, "YA(h)" has always been an acceptable contraction for the sacred Name. And including the "Mar" in front of it makes it have the same meaning as the Hebrew phrase "Adonai YHWH".