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book of Hebrews: better from Greek, or Aramaic?
How would you translate the Greek John 9:39a?
("For judgment I came into this world"? "For judgment I did come to this world"?)
How do you think John 9:39 originally read?

Both the Peshitta and the by-A.D. 175 Diatessaron can yield "To judge the world am I come"/“For the judgment of this world I have come."

John 9:39 - Jesus said, "I have come before the judgment of this world,
that those who cannot see may see, and those who (may) see may become blind."
I have come to the judgment of this world - this is the reading of the Aramean Peshitta. The reading of the Greek NA28, MHT and TR reads: 'I have come to a judgment in this world'.

John 9:39
(Berean Literal) And Jesus said, "For judgment I came into this world,
that those not seeing may see, and those seeing may become blind."
(Young's Literal) And Jesus said, 'For judgment I to this world did come,
that those not seeing may see, and those seeing may become blind.'
(KJV) And Jesus said, For judgment I am come into this world,
that they which see not might see; and that they which see might be made blind.

Diatessaron 37:1
And Jesus said, To judge the world am I come,
so that they that see not may see, and they that see may become blind.

John 9:39
(Aramaic Bible in Plain English) And Yeshua said, “For the judgment of this world I have come,
that those who do not see may see, and that those who see may become blind.”
(Etheridge) Jeshu said to them, For the judgment of this world am I come,
that they who see not may see, and they who see may be made blind.
(Murdock) And Jesus said: For the judgment of this world, have I come;
that they who see not, might see; and that they who see, might become blind.
(APNT) And Jesus said, "I have come for the judgment of this world,
so that those who do not see may see and those who see may become blind."

===================================
Do you think John 10:8 originally had "before Me"?

Neither the Peshitta nor the by-A.D. 175 Diatessaron have "before Me."

John 10:8 - All who have come (before Me) are thieves and robbers, but the flock has not listened to them.
before Me - this text occurs in the reading of the Greek NA28, MHT and TR, but is missing from the reading of the Aramaic Peshitta.

Diatessaron 37:11
And all that came are thieves and stealers: but the sheep heard them not.

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Do you think John 10:9 originally had:
"he will live"?
"he will be saved"?
(if "he will live," do you consider "he will be saved" a theological embellishment in Greek mss.?)

Both the Peshitta and the by-A.D. 175 Diatessaron have "he will live."

John 10:9 - I AM the Door. If anyone enters through Me, he will live and he will go in and out and find pasture.
he will live - this is the reading of the Aramean Peshitta. The reading of the Greek NA28, MHT and TR reads: 'he will be saved' or 'he will be saved'.

Diatessaron 37:12
I am the door: and if a man enter by me, he shall live, and shall go in and go out, and shall find pasture.

===================================
Do you think John 10:15 originally had:
"my Father... my Father"?
"the Father... the Father"?

Both the Peshitta and the by-A.D. 175 Diatessaron have "my Father... my Father."

John 10:15 - as my Father knows Me and I know my Father, and I lay down my life for the flock.
my Father - this is the reading of the Aramean Peshitta. The reading of the Greek NA28, MHT and TR reads: 'the Father'.

Diatessaron 37:18
as my Father knoweth me, and I know my Father; and I give myself for the sheep.

John 10:15
(Young's Literal) according as the Father doth know me, and I know the Father, and my life I lay down for the sheep,

===================================
Do you think John 10:17 originally had:
"my Father"?
"the Father"?

Both the Peshitta and the by-A.D. 175 Diatessaron have "my Father."

John 10:17 - That is why my Father loves Me, because I lay down my life to take it again.
my Father - this is the reading of the Aramean Peshitta. The reading of the Greek NA28, MHT and TR reads: 'the Father'.

Diatessaron 37:20
And therefore doth my Father love me, because I give my life, that I may take it again.

===================================
Do you think John 10:18 originally had:
"of Myself"?
"of my own will"?

Both the Peshitta and the by-A.D. 175 Diatessaron have "of my own will."

John 10:18 - No one takes it from Me, but I voluntarily take it off. I have power to take it off and I have power to take it again. I received this commandment from my Father. ”
voluntary - this is the reading of the Aramean Peshitta. The reading of the Greek NA28, MHT and TR reads: 'from Myself'.

Diatessaron 37:21
No man taketh it from me, but l leave it of my own choice. And I have the right to leave it, and have the right also to take it. And this commandment did I receive of my Father.

John 10:18
(Berean Literal) No one takes it from Me, but I lay it down of Myself. I have authority to lay it down, and I have authority to take it again. This commandment I received from My Father."
(Young's Literal) no one doth take it from me, but I lay it down of myself; authority I have to lay it down, and authority I have again to take it; this command I received from my Father.'
(KJV) No man taketh it from me, but I lay it down of myself. I have power to lay it down, and I have power to take it again. This commandment have I received of my Father.

(Etheridge) No man taketh it away from me, but I lay it down from my will; for I am able to lay it down, and I am able to take it again; for this commandment have I received from my Father.
(Murdock) There is no one that taketh it from me; but I lay it down of my own pleasure: for I have authority to lay it down, and authority to resume it again; because I have received this command from my Father.
(Aramaic Bible in Plain English) “No man takes it from me; I am laying it down of my own will, for I am authorized to lay it down, and I am authorized to receive it again; this commandment I have received from my Father.”
(APNT) No one takes it away from me, but rather I lay it down by my [own] will, for I have authority to lay it down and I have authority to take it up again, for I have received this command from my Father."

===================================
Do you think John 10:32 originally had:
"said to them"?
"answered them"?

Both the Peshitta and the by-A.D. 175 Diatessaron have "said to them."

John 10:32 - Jesus said to them, “I have shown you many good works from my Father. Which of those works do you want to stone Me for? "
said to them - this is the reading of the Aramean Peshitta. The reading of the Greek NA28, MHT and TR reads: "answered them."

Diatessaron 37:35
Jesus said unto them, Many good deeds from my Father have I shewed you; because of which of them, then, do ye stone me?

===================================
Do you think John 10:25 originally had:
"answered and said to them"?
"answered them"?

Both the Peshitta and the by-A.D. 175 Diatessaron have "answered and said to them."

John 10:25 - Jesus answered and said to them, "I have told you, (but) you do not believe (it). The works that I do in the Name of My Father testify of Me.
answered and said to them - this is the reading of the Aramean Peshitta. The reading of the Greek NA28, MHT and TR reads: "answered them."

Diatessaron 37:28
He answered and said unto them, I told you, and ye believe not: and the deeds that I do in my Father's name bear witness to me.

===================================
Do you think John 10:33 originally had:
"said to Him"?
"answered Him"?

Both the Peshitta and the by-A.D. 175 Diatessaron have "said to Him."

John 10:33 - The Jews said to Him, "We do not stone You for a good work, but because You blaspheme, and because You, being a Man, make Yourself GOD."
said to Him - this is the reading of the Aramean Peshitta. The reading of the Greek NA28, MHT and TR reads: 'answered Him'.

Diatessaron 37:36
The Jews said unto him, Not for the good deeds do we stone thee, but because thou blasphemest; and, whilst thou art a man, makest thy self God.

===================================
Do you think John 10:34 originally had:
"said to them"?
"answered them"?

Both the Peshitta and the by-A.D. 175 Diatessaron have "said to them."

John 10:34 - Jesus said to them, "Is it not written in your Law, 'I said, You are gods!'?
said to them - this is the reading of the Aramean Peshitta. The reading of the Greek NA28, MHT and TR reads: "answered them."

Diatessaron 37:37
Jesus said unto them, Is it not thus written in your law, I said, Ye are gods?

===================================
Do you think John 10:38 originally had:
"my Father is in me, and I in my Father"?
"the Father is in me, and I in the Father"?
"the Father is in me, and I in Him"?

Both the Peshitta and the by-A.D. 175 Diatessaron have "my Father is in me, and I in my Father."

John 10:38 - But if I do them, then believe in the works, even though you do not believe in Me, that you may know and believe that
my Father is in Me and I in my Father. "
my Father - this is the reading of the Aramean Peshitta. The reading of the Greek NA28, MHT and TR reads: 'the Father'.
in my Father - this is the reading of the Aramean Peshitta and the Greek NA28. The reading of the Greek MHT and TR reads 'in Him'.

Diatessaron 37:41
If then I do not the deeds of my Father, ye believe me not. But if I do, even if ye believe not me, believe the deeds: that ye may know and believe that
my Father is in me, and I in my Father.

John 10:38
(Berean Literal) But if I do, even if you do not believe Me, believe the works, so that you may know and may understand that
the Father is in Me, and I in the Father."
(Aramaic Bible in Plain English) “But if I am doing them, even though you do not believe me, believe those deeds, so that you may know and that you may believe that
my Father is in me and I in my Father.”
(Young's Literal) and if I do, even if me ye may not believe, the works believe, that ye may know and may believe that
in me is the Father, and I in Him.'

===================================
Do you think John 10:40 originally had "again"?

Neither the Peshitta nor the by-A.D. 175 Diatessaron have "again."

John 10:40 - He crossed the Jordan to where John had first baptized and stayed there.
He crossed the Jordan - this is the reading of the Aramean Peshitta. The reading of the Greek NA28, MHT and TR reads: "He crossed the Jordan again."

Diatessaron 37:43
And he went beyond Jordan to the place where John was baptizing formerly; and abode there.

John 10:40
(Berean Literal) And He departed again beyond the Jordan, to the place where John was baptizing at first. And He stayed there.
(Aramaic Bible in Plain English) And he went on to the crossing of The Jordan, to the place where Yohannan had been before when he was baptizing, and there he stayed.
(Young's Literal) and went away again to the other side of the Jordan, to the place where John was at first baptizing, and remained there,

===================================
Do you think John 11:1 originally had:
"brother of Mary and Martha"?
"town of Mary and her sister Martha"?

Both the Peshitta and the by-A.D. 175 Diatessaron have "brother of Mary and Martha."

John 11:1 - There was a sick man, Lazarus, from the village of Bethany, brother of Mary and Martha.
from the village of Bethany ... - this is the reading of the Aramean Peshitta. The reading of the Greek NA28, MHT and TR reads: "from Bethany, the village of Mary and her sister Martha." The Greek text is a bit strange because when we know that Lazarus was from Bethany, then of course his sisters were also from there and need not be said extra by the addition: 'the village of Mary and her sister Martha'. See also the note at Mt. 21:17.

Diatessaron 37:46
And there was a sick man, named Lazarus, of the village of Bethany, the brother of Mary and Martha.

John 11:1
(Etheridge) BUT a certain man was sick, Loozar, of the village Bethania: (he was) the brother of Mariam and of Martha.
(Murdock) And a certain man was sick, Lazarus of the town of Bethany, the brother of Mary and Martha.
(KJV) Now a certain man was sick, named Lazarus, of Bethany, the town of Mary and her sister Martha.

===================================
Do you think John 11:2 originally had:
"Jesus"?
"the Lord"?
(if "Jesus," do you consider "the Lord" a theological embellishment in Greek mss.?)

Both the Peshitta and the by-A.D. 175 Diatessaron have "Jesus."

John 11:2 - It was this Mary who anointed the feet of Jesus with oil and dried them with her hair, and her brother Lazarus was sick.
Jesus - this is the reading of the Aramean Peshitta. The reading of the Greek NA28, MHT and TR reads: 'the Lord'.

Diatessaron 37:47
And Mary was she that anointed with sweet ointment the feet of Jesus, and wiped them with her hair; and Lazarus, who was sick, was the brother of this woman.

===================================
Do you think John 11:3 originally had:
"Our Lord"?
"the Lord"?

Both the Peshitta and the by-A.D. 175 Diatessaron have "Our Lord."

John 11:3 - Both of his sisters sent (someone) to Jesus and (made him) say, "Our Lord, behold, he who loves You is sick."
[(‹Lites›)] say - literally it says, "they said."
Our Lord - this is the reading of the Aramean Peshitta. The reading of the Greek NA28, MHT and TR reads: 'the Lord'.

Diatessaron 37:48
And his sisters sent unto Jesus, and said unto him, Our Lord, behold, he whom thou lovest is sick.

===================================
Do you think John 11:4 originally had:
"But Jesus said"?
"When Jesus heard this, He said"?

Both the Peshitta and the by-A.D. 175 Diatessaron have "But Jesus said."

John 11:4 - But Jesus said, "This sickness is not of mortal (kind), but to the glory of GOD, that it may glorify the Son of GOD."
But Jesus said - this is the reading of the Aramean Peshitta. The reading of the Greek NA28, MHT and TR reads: "When Jesus heard this, He said."

Diatessaron 37:49
But Jesus said, This sickness is not unto death, but for the glorifying of God, that the Son of God may be glorified because of it.

===================================
Do you think John 11:5 originally had:
"Martha and Mary and Lazarus"?
"Martha and her sister and Lazarus"?

Both the Peshitta and the by-A.D. 175 Diatessaron have "Martha and Mary and Lazarus."

John 11:5 - Jesus loved Martha, Mary and Lazarus.
Mary - this is the reading of the Aramean Peshitta. The reading of the Greek NA28, MHT and TR reads: 'and her sister'.

Diatessaron 37:50
And Jesus loved Martha, and Mary, and Lazarus.

John 11:5
(Berean Literal) Now Jesus loved Martha and her sister and Lazarus.
(Aramaic Bible in Plain English) Now Yeshua did love Martha and Maryam and Lazar.
(Young's Literal) And Jesus was loving Martha, and her sister, and Lazarus,

===================================
Do you think John 11:7 originally had:
"his disciples"? "the disciples"
"Come"?

Both the Peshitta and the by-A.D. 175 Diatessaron have "his disciples" and "Come."

John 11:7 - Then He said to His disciples, "Come, let's go back to Judea!"
his disciples - this is the reading of the Aramean Peshitta. The reading of the Greek NA28, MHT and TR reads: 'the disciples'.
Come - this is the reading of the Aramean Peshitta. This word is missing in the reading of the Greek NA28, MHT and TR.

Diatessaron 37:52
And after that, he said unto his disciples, Come, let us go into Judaea.
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RE: book of Hebrews: better from Greek, or Aramaic? - by DavidFord - 06-11-2020, 11:19 PM

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