For Mk 14:25, is the sense better rendered in English with:
"in the Kingdom of God"?
"when God will have set up his rule/reign/lordship/dominion"?
CVB Mk 14:25 Most certainly I tell you,
I will no more drink of the fruit of the vine,
until that day when I drink it anew in the Kingdom of God."
_The Eucharistic Words of Jesus_ by Joachim Jeremias (1966), 278pp., 184
https://www.amazon.com/Eucharistic-Words...334004144/
14.25, ἐν τῇ βασιλείᾳ τοῦ θεοῦ ('in the kingdom of God'). βασιλείᾳ does not signify in this phrase the kingdom as something spatial, to which it would approximate in the Greek understanding, but has rather-- as always _malkut_-- a dynamic significance. One should compare the chronological statement in Dan. 6.29: _bemalkut Doryawes_ 'under the reign (lordship, dominion) of Darius'. Correspondingly, 'in the kingdom of God' is not a local, but a temporal declaration: 'when God will have set up his rule'.
"in the Kingdom of God"?
"when God will have set up his rule/reign/lordship/dominion"?
CVB Mk 14:25 Most certainly I tell you,
I will no more drink of the fruit of the vine,
until that day when I drink it anew in the Kingdom of God."
_The Eucharistic Words of Jesus_ by Joachim Jeremias (1966), 278pp., 184
https://www.amazon.com/Eucharistic-Words...334004144/
14.25, ἐν τῇ βασιλείᾳ τοῦ θεοῦ ('in the kingdom of God'). βασιλείᾳ does not signify in this phrase the kingdom as something spatial, to which it would approximate in the Greek understanding, but has rather-- as always _malkut_-- a dynamic significance. One should compare the chronological statement in Dan. 6.29: _bemalkut Doryawes_ 'under the reign (lordship, dominion) of Darius'. Correspondingly, 'in the kingdom of God' is not a local, but a temporal declaration: 'when God will have set up his rule'.