Both the original Aramaic and its Greek translation speak of a world/age.
Neither speak of an infinite length of time.
I would say, the Greek translation of the original Aramaic confirms that a world/age was spoken of, and not an infinite length of time.
One could also say that the original Aramaic suggests that the Greek translation-- which was done shortly after the Aramaic was written-- speaks of a world/age, and doesn't speak of an infinite length of time.
Mt 25:46 (based on Younan)
And these will depart l'thshniqa-d'l'ailm [to-torment of/that-to-the world/age, i.e. to the world/age of torment],
and the zadiqa [righteous] l'khia-d'l'ailm [to-life of/that-to-the world/age, i.e. to the world/age of life]."
https://www.jstor.org/stable/3262339
The Translation of Aramaic DÎ in the Greek Bibles
D. K. Andrews
Journal of Biblical Literature
Vol. 66, No. 1 (Mar., 1947), pp. 15-51
I know little about the Latin. Or about Jerome, for that matter. I don't know what words he used, and don't know what meanings he ascribed to those words, nor do I know what meanings those words had among the general population at the time that he produced what he produced.
Do any advocates of never-ending-torture appeal to the Latin?
Reference that Jerome thought "æternum" meant 'an infinite length of time'?
Even today, 'eternity' doesn't necessarily mean 'an infinite length of time,' e.g. in "I went to the store today, and it took an eternity to get checked out. Everybody was at the store."
Matthew 25:46 (Clementine Vulgate)
http://dukhrana.com
Et ibunt hi in supplicium æternum: iusti autem in vitam æternam.
google translate:
These will go away into eternal punishment, but the righteous to eternal life.
Neither speak of an infinite length of time.
I would say, the Greek translation of the original Aramaic confirms that a world/age was spoken of, and not an infinite length of time.
One could also say that the original Aramaic suggests that the Greek translation-- which was done shortly after the Aramaic was written-- speaks of a world/age, and doesn't speak of an infinite length of time.
Mt 25:46 (based on Younan)
And these will depart l'thshniqa-d'l'ailm [to-torment of/that-to-the world/age, i.e. to the world/age of torment],
and the zadiqa [righteous] l'khia-d'l'ailm [to-life of/that-to-the world/age, i.e. to the world/age of life]."
https://www.jstor.org/stable/3262339
The Translation of Aramaic DÎ in the Greek Bibles
D. K. Andrews
Journal of Biblical Literature
Vol. 66, No. 1 (Mar., 1947), pp. 15-51
I know little about the Latin. Or about Jerome, for that matter. I don't know what words he used, and don't know what meanings he ascribed to those words, nor do I know what meanings those words had among the general population at the time that he produced what he produced.
Do any advocates of never-ending-torture appeal to the Latin?
Reference that Jerome thought "æternum" meant 'an infinite length of time'?
Even today, 'eternity' doesn't necessarily mean 'an infinite length of time,' e.g. in "I went to the store today, and it took an eternity to get checked out. Everybody was at the store."
Matthew 25:46 (Clementine Vulgate)
http://dukhrana.com
Et ibunt hi in supplicium æternum: iusti autem in vitam æternam.
google translate:
These will go away into eternal punishment, but the righteous to eternal life.