"'Isaiah 9:5 a child has been born a child has been given to us...' This is past tense!!!! This verse was written 500 years before your i d o l was born."
Do you disagree with any of this?: from
https://preachersinstitute.com/2016/09/0...etic-text/
For example, it is helpful to know that Hebrew does not have a past or future tense, but only a perfect and imperfect tense… and so just because an English translation is clearly in either the past, present, or future tense, it does not necessarily mean that this is what is implied by the Hebrew original. One often encounters the use of the “prophetic perfect”, where a prophecy of something that has not yet come to pass is in the perfect tense, and so is often translated with the English past tense, e.g. …with His stripes, we were healed (Isaiah 53:5), when from the perspective of the prophet, he was speaking of something in the future.
Do you disagree with any of this?:
Hebrew Tenses
http://www.iclnet.org/pub/resources/text...brtens.htm
There is no such thing as "tense" in biblical Hebrew. (Modern Hebrew, on the other hand, does have tenses.) Biblical Hebrew is not a "tense" language. Modern grammarians recognize that it is an "aspectual" language. This means that the same form of a verb can be translated as either past, present, or future depending on the context and various grammatical cues. The most well known grammatical cue is the "vav-consecutive" that makes an imperfective verb to refer to the past.
Therefore it is wrong to say that Isaiah 53 or other prophecies are in the "past tense." BIblical Hebrew has no tenses. There are many examples of what is wrongly called the "past tense" form (properly called "the perfective" or "perfect") being used for future time.
This fact was recognized by the medieval commentators as well as by modern grammarians.
Proofs ....
"It says there he will accept the Torah the word of God on his shoulders. The verses are definitely not talkin about anything that you believe in."
You said that you believe the identity of the Isaiah 9:6 person is "king David or king Solomon. .... Maybe it's Santa Claus." In looking at Isaiah 9:6, do you consider:
King David: "Mighty God"? "Everlasting Father"?
King Solomon: "Mighty God"? "Everlasting Father"?
Santa Claus: "Mighty God"? "Everlasting Father"?
Do you disagree with any of this?: from
https://preachersinstitute.com/2016/09/0...etic-text/
For example, it is helpful to know that Hebrew does not have a past or future tense, but only a perfect and imperfect tense… and so just because an English translation is clearly in either the past, present, or future tense, it does not necessarily mean that this is what is implied by the Hebrew original. One often encounters the use of the “prophetic perfect”, where a prophecy of something that has not yet come to pass is in the perfect tense, and so is often translated with the English past tense, e.g. …with His stripes, we were healed (Isaiah 53:5), when from the perspective of the prophet, he was speaking of something in the future.
Do you disagree with any of this?:
Hebrew Tenses
http://www.iclnet.org/pub/resources/text...brtens.htm
There is no such thing as "tense" in biblical Hebrew. (Modern Hebrew, on the other hand, does have tenses.) Biblical Hebrew is not a "tense" language. Modern grammarians recognize that it is an "aspectual" language. This means that the same form of a verb can be translated as either past, present, or future depending on the context and various grammatical cues. The most well known grammatical cue is the "vav-consecutive" that makes an imperfective verb to refer to the past.
Therefore it is wrong to say that Isaiah 53 or other prophecies are in the "past tense." BIblical Hebrew has no tenses. There are many examples of what is wrongly called the "past tense" form (properly called "the perfective" or "perfect") being used for future time.
This fact was recognized by the medieval commentators as well as by modern grammarians.
Proofs ....
"It says there he will accept the Torah the word of God on his shoulders. The verses are definitely not talkin about anything that you believe in."
You said that you believe the identity of the Isaiah 9:6 person is "king David or king Solomon. .... Maybe it's Santa Claus." In looking at Isaiah 9:6, do you consider:
King David: "Mighty God"? "Everlasting Father"?
King Solomon: "Mighty God"? "Everlasting Father"?
Santa Claus: "Mighty God"? "Everlasting Father"?