agapao and phileo - a split word? hopefully...

[Paul Younan]

But even if we disregard this issue as a split word, for argument's sake, how do we solve this problem? If phileo and agapao are just synonyms, shouldn't we see more variances among the manuscripts?

Don't get me wrong, I'm not trying to cause trouble for Peshitta primacy here, and make the Greek look good. But I also see that with individual Greek translations, we should see more 'synonym variants'...

We should see some synomnal split words - but I really have noticed that true split words are far more prevalent when Zorba was presented with a root that had multiple divergent readings.

It also depends on the circumstances and inter-relationship of the various Greek families of text.