09-17-2003, 09:10 PM
Hmmm... I will agree that split words with different meanings are 'stronger evidence' but I still see 'synonym split words' as evidence of Greek translation also. If the Greek is the original, then they should be the same etc.
But even if we disregard this issue as a split word, for argument's sake, how do we solve this problem? If phileo and agapao are just synonyms, shouldn't we see more variances among the manuscripts?
Don't get me wrong, I'm not trying to cause trouble for Peshitta primacy here, and make the Greek look good. But I also see that with individual Greek translations, we should see more 'synonym variants'...
But even if we disregard this issue as a split word, for argument's sake, how do we solve this problem? If phileo and agapao are just synonyms, shouldn't we see more variances among the manuscripts?
Don't get me wrong, I'm not trying to cause trouble for Peshitta primacy here, and make the Greek look good. But I also see that with individual Greek translations, we should see more 'synonym variants'...