agapao and phileo - a split word? hopefully...

[Paul Younan]

Shlama Akhi,

Woops, I can't find any more examples so far. Unless there are way more examples, two negative scenarios are a possibility:

1) Paul Younan was wrong, that the Peshtta has only one word, while the Greek has phileo and agapao. Is this so? I thought too the Peshitta only had one word fo rlove.

While Paul Younan has been wrong too many times in the past <!-- s --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/sad.gif" alt="" title="Sad" /><!-- s --> , I don't think you have to worry to much about this, Akhi.

The Peshitta has only one word for love in this passage of scripture - but throughout the NT there are actually two different words used. [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]0bwx [/font]and [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]0mxr[/font]

I think we need to study the inter-relationship between these Aramaic words and the corresponding Greek translations.

2) The Peshitta is not he original. Obviously this is quatsch, BUT how then no variants? If agape and phileo are synonyms from the same Aramaic word, then there should be PLENTY of examples where agape and phileo are interchanged in verses between various Greek mss.

Man, this topic makes me go nuts <!-- s --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/sad.gif" alt="" title="Sad" /><!-- s -->

Something to keep in mind - usually the reason for a true "split-word" is that the original has multiple, but different meanings. That's not the case here, right? <!-- shock: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/shocked.gif" alt="hock:" title="shocked" /><!-- shock: -->