09-22-2003, 12:25 PM
"Regarding the actual meaning of Jesus's name, why is it the case then that his name was always transliterated 'Jesus' and not 'Joshua' then, if they both had the same name?"
Exactly! Have a good long think. Most will probably not want to step into this territory, but I shall be honest. I believe the terms 'Jesus' and 'Church' are pagan corruptions, and are given to us through the Greek. To me, it makes perfect sense that Satan is the one who has given the Greek texts and its many corruptions and doctrinal confusions to us.
I shall try and find some stuff on 'Jesus' (sounds like Zeus...) and 'Church' for you, I remember a long time ago, that these were some of the pagan corruptions of 'holy' names.
Exactly! Have a good long think. Most will probably not want to step into this territory, but I shall be honest. I believe the terms 'Jesus' and 'Church' are pagan corruptions, and are given to us through the Greek. To me, it makes perfect sense that Satan is the one who has given the Greek texts and its many corruptions and doctrinal confusions to us.
I shall try and find some stuff on 'Jesus' (sounds like Zeus...) and 'Church' for you, I remember a long time ago, that these were some of the pagan corruptions of 'holy' names.