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Greetings Again!
#1
Shlama,


Not sure how many might recall my former presence here, but this wonderful forum has been a place of sincere blessings for me over the years. I had to take a prolonged sabbatical from it and several other focuses for many family reasons, but I am sticking my feet back into this pool as I can! Excited to be back and looking forward to great conversations! Thanks to all who give to make sure this forum has stayed around, and who have participated over the years in giving great food for thought!


Blessings in Him!
Jeremy
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#2
It's great to see you here again Bro...welcome back. <!-- sSmile --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/smile.gif" alt="Smile" title="Smile" /><!-- sSmile -->

Here's something we could discuss for a bit, if you like.

Take a look at John 12:1

In the Aramaic text does it literally say,

"...before the six days of the Passover..."

or must it be translated like below, which is seen in all the English translations I've seen.

"...six days before the Passover..."

Also take a look at the way the Greek has it worded.

Shlama,
Chuck
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#3
Ronen,

Please share what you posted about the way the Greek reads and the Scripture in Deut. if you want.

Peace,
Chuck
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#4
Do you mean this?

I believe it is certainly possible for it to be worded as 'days of the Passover', as even the Greek gives this as a rendering from what I can see as well:

hemeron (days) tou (of the) pasxa (passover)

tou is genitive masculine singular indicating possession, as is the case in vss. 3, 7, 13, etc...feet of the Yeshua, odor of the Attar, day of the burial, king of the Israel. This would appear to match with the Aramaic, with most English translations seeming to, for whatever reason, not render it as such.

I wonder if the writer could be referring to the period as six days, such as is indicated in the Torah:

Six days shall you eat unleavened cakes, and on the seventh day, a day of restraint to Yahweh your Elohim, you shall do no occupational work at all.
(Deu 16:8)

Ronen
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#5
Thirdwoe Wrote:It's great to see you here again Bro...welcome back. <!-- sSmile --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/smile.gif" alt="Smile" title="Smile" /><!-- sSmile -->

Here's something we could discuss for a bit, if you like.

Take a look at John 12:1

In the Aramaic text does it literally say,

"...before the six days of the Passover..."

or must it be translated like below, which is seen in all the English translations I've seen.

"...six days before the Passover..."

Also take a look at the way the Greek has it worded.

Shlama,
Chuck

Many Thanks!

I feel the word order in the Aramaic can work as we see popularly translated, but I translated it literally in my own work because of my lean to that style, similarly to as you first suggest. We know from the other synoptic accounts that this was around 2 days *before* Passover. Thus, no meaning is changed from the popular rendering, ultimately, except for a very minor detail that could be brought forth that would be a bit more Hebraic in nature, as Ronen shared from Deuteronomy 16:8, even though other verses say it lasted for seven days.

Jeremy
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#6
Since the synoptic's indicate it was about 2 days before the Feast began, not 6 days, when Yeshua arrived in the area, it seems to me that its best to render it as it's given in the text, literally "before the six days of the Pesha", so as not to cause a contradiction in the text.

If its rendered "six days before the Pesha", then the proclitic that's present in the text must be ignored in translation. I wonder if there another instance like this one, were "of the Pesha" is rendered "the Pesha" in English, ignoring the proclitic "of" in the text, or is this a unique wording?

Also, notice how the SP (Old Scratch) has it given. It may be more an interpretation there.

Shlama,
Chuck
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#7
Thirdwoe Wrote:Since the synoptic's indicate it was about 2 days before the Feast began, not 6 days, when Yeshua arrived in the area, it seems to me that its best to render it as it's given in the text, literally "before the six days of the Pesha", so as not to cause a contradiction in the text.

If its rendered "six days before the Pesha", then the proclitic that's present in the text must be ignored in translation. I wonder if there another instance like this one, were "of the Pesha" is rendered "the Pesha" in English, ignoring the proclitic "of" in the text, or is this a unique wording?

Also, notice how the SP (Old Scratch) has it given. It may be more an interpretation there.

Shlama,
Chuck


Shlama,

Yes, those are worthy details to note!

Every instance of the Dalet proclitic used in conjunction with this term requires that the Dalet be translated, in my opinion. I don't see a good reason not to translate it here.

Jeremy
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