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Is "Allah" credibly the Arabic version of "Alaha?"
Mark Siljander's book A Deadly Misunderstanding makes a linguistics-based case (pp 44-47, but don't just jump there) that for over 5 centuries before Muhammad, Arab Christians and even some Jews in the Arabian peninsula used the word Allah for God. He documents A Complete List of Qur'anic References to Isa (Jesus) that he groups into 57 categories, many with multiple Sura cites. I'm only a third of the way through this work, but would like to know what Aramaic-based counterarguments can be raised (after having read the whole) by linguistic experts.

Not to in any way elevate the Qur'an from its highly self-contradictory "piece* of work" status, or to denigrate the Peshitta New Covenant / Peshitta-LXX-Masoritic Old Testament with its Adamic, Noahic, Abrahamic, and Mosaic (Hagar) Covenants (I highly recommend Dr. Jason Lisle's The Ultimate Proof of Creation for critical thinking skill development) from being THE WORD of MarYah Yeshua for which we are accountable, but am interested in whether Siljander's study results and life experiences can be legitimately discounted linguistically.

Siljander makes a case for using the "correct" portions of the Qur'an as a means of defusing Islamic terrorism.

*if it were truly "holy" in any way, of course, it would include some form of The Golden Rule (Mat 7.12), vs. ongoing "kill the infidel wherever" instructions.

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Is "Allah" credibly the Arabic version of "Alaha?" - by DavidLeRoy - 01-22-2015, 05:46 PM

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