12-06-2014, 08:39 PM
2 Wordplays; Possible Contradiction
Jn 8:34 has a wordplay in the original Aramaic, with commits (aibed) on the one side, and slave (aibada) on the other side:
"Amain, amain I say to you that,
anyone who-commits [d'aibed] sin is of sin its-slave [aibdeh]."
Lk 7:41-42 has a wordplay in the original Aramaic, with debtors, creditor, and owed-him on the one side (debt: khoba), and love-him (love: khuba) on the other side:
"There were two debtors [khyba] to a certain creditor [mara-khoba i.e. master of debt].
One had owed-him [khyb] five hundred denarii,
and the other fifty denarii.
And because they had no way to repay,
he forgave both of them.
Therefore, which of them will love-him [nkhbyohi] more?"
=========================.
Did Gabriel tell Mary to name Jesus "Jesus"?
Did Gabriel tell Joseph to name Jesus "Jesus"?
Did Gabriel tell Mary and Joseph separately to name Jesus "Jesus"?
In Biblical times, who typically named a child? The mother? The father? Both mother and father deciding together?
In the Greek translations of Matthew 1:21 and Luke 1:31, one verse has Gabriel telling _Joseph_ to name Mary's son "Jesus,"
while the other verse has Gabriel telling _Mary_ to name her son "Jesus":
Matthew 1:21 (NIV)
She [Mary] will give birth to a son,
and you [Joseph] are to give him the name Jesus,
because he will save his people from their sins.?
Luke 1:31 (NIV)
You [Mary] will conceive and give birth to a son,
and you are to call him Jesus.
In the Aramaic for Mt 1:21, the word for "call" can be either second person masculine (as in, 'you, Joseph') or third person feminine (as in, 'she, Mary'). Hence, a possible rendering of Mt 1:21 from the original Aramaic that makes it more harmonious with Lk 1:31's "you [Mary] are to call him Jesus" would be:
'she [Mary] will give birth to a son,
and she is to give him the name Jesus.'
h/t: the image file
<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://www.peshitta.org/images/Peshitta.pps">http://www.peshitta.org/images/Peshitta.pps</a><!-- m -->
Jn 8:34 has a wordplay in the original Aramaic, with commits (aibed) on the one side, and slave (aibada) on the other side:
"Amain, amain I say to you that,
anyone who-commits [d'aibed] sin is of sin its-slave [aibdeh]."
Lk 7:41-42 has a wordplay in the original Aramaic, with debtors, creditor, and owed-him on the one side (debt: khoba), and love-him (love: khuba) on the other side:
"There were two debtors [khyba] to a certain creditor [mara-khoba i.e. master of debt].
One had owed-him [khyb] five hundred denarii,
and the other fifty denarii.
And because they had no way to repay,
he forgave both of them.
Therefore, which of them will love-him [nkhbyohi] more?"
=========================.
Did Gabriel tell Mary to name Jesus "Jesus"?
Did Gabriel tell Joseph to name Jesus "Jesus"?
Did Gabriel tell Mary and Joseph separately to name Jesus "Jesus"?
In Biblical times, who typically named a child? The mother? The father? Both mother and father deciding together?
In the Greek translations of Matthew 1:21 and Luke 1:31, one verse has Gabriel telling _Joseph_ to name Mary's son "Jesus,"
while the other verse has Gabriel telling _Mary_ to name her son "Jesus":
Matthew 1:21 (NIV)
She [Mary] will give birth to a son,
and you [Joseph] are to give him the name Jesus,
because he will save his people from their sins.?
Luke 1:31 (NIV)
You [Mary] will conceive and give birth to a son,
and you are to call him Jesus.
In the Aramaic for Mt 1:21, the word for "call" can be either second person masculine (as in, 'you, Joseph') or third person feminine (as in, 'she, Mary'). Hence, a possible rendering of Mt 1:21 from the original Aramaic that makes it more harmonious with Lk 1:31's "you [Mary] are to call him Jesus" would be:
'she [Mary] will give birth to a son,
and she is to give him the name Jesus.'
h/t: the image file
<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://www.peshitta.org/images/Peshitta.pps">http://www.peshitta.org/images/Peshitta.pps</a><!-- m -->