Mark 7:34

[Bram]

shlama Shamasha Paul,

I'd like to ask about Mark 7:34. If this "Ephphata" originally in Aramaic why would the Bible write the explanation of it? didn't they aramaic-speaking people?

Tawdee.
Rudolf

[Paul Younan]

Have you read the Aramaic of Mark 7:34 ?

+Shamasha

[Bram]

Have you read the Aramaic of Mark 7:34 ?

+Shamasha

Tawdee Akhi Paul, I think I know now that there is different text between Aramaic Peshitta and Greek text.

One more question, when I read the English version of Peshitta here: http://www.dukhrana.com/peshitta/index.php

why was then the Lamsa's translation different?

Alaha Natir L'oukh

Rudolf

[Paul Younan]

I can't answer why Lamsas version reads that way. Who knows?

Take care
+Shamasha

[Bram]

I can't answer why Lamsas version reads that way. Who knows?

Take care
+Shamasha

<!-- s:biggrin: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/biggrin.gif" alt=":biggrin:" title="Big Grin" /><!-- s:biggrin: -->

Tawdee Shamasha Paul

[ScorpioSniper2]

George Lamsa liked to use some of the KJV's readings. I find it interesting that the Greek transliterates the Aramaic text in spots, as the Septuagint does this with the Hebrew Tanakh, also. Sometimes the Greek has different transliterations for one Aramaic phrase, hinting at an Aramaic original. For example, some manuscripts transliterate "Talitha qum" in Mark 5:41 as "Talitha qumi", this is because unless there is no other vowel in the word, the final yodh (transliterated here as "i") is silent. "Talitha qumi" is the written form, while "Talitha qum" is the phonetic spelling.

[Bram]

For example, some manuscripts transliterate "Talitha qum" in Mark 5:41 as "Talitha qumi", this is because unless there is no other vowel in the word, the final yodh (transliterated here as "i") is silent. "Talitha qumi" is the written form, while "Talitha qum" is the phonetic spelling.

Tawdee akhi