08-30-2014, 06:59 PM
If we choose to ignore the word "of" in our translations of verse 32, which is present in the text there, then in vs 33 and in vs 35 it should read "God Bread" and "Life Bread". How is translating these two verses considered "very literal" if we go with "Bread of God" and "Bread of Life" instead, which is what is there in the text, just as in vs 32?
I say, "Bread of Truth" is what Shlikha John had in mind when he wrote down the words, and what Eshu meant when He said the words, just as in verses 33 and 35.
"Light of Truth" is correct, in John 1:9
But, maybe someone likes to have an English translation of the Aramaic NT, which matches the way it was translated in the Greek text in John 1:9 and John 6:32, and Heb 8:2, rather than how it actually was originally said and written in the Aramaic NT. Not me. I say the words are there for a reason, and how they are given is the way it should be shown. I'm not one who prefers a paraphrase over an actual translation.
We see a pattern in John 6, where verse 32, 33, and 35 respectively, all have it worded as "The Bread of Truth" "The Bread of Alaha" and "The Bread of Life".
These are titles, and should be shown as such, just as John 1:9 should be shown as "The Light of Truth".
A good translation should stick as close to the actual way it is said in the source text, or you can miss the real meaning. It can get rather crazy, as in this case I'm looking at in "The Ancient Roots Translinear Bible" by A Frances Werner. Where they have John 6:32 translated thus: Jesus said to them, "Amen, Amen I say to you: It was not Moses that granted the bread from heaven to you, but my Father granted bread, a rainbow-sign to you from heaven."
Or Victor Alexander's translation of the verse: "Jesus said to them, "Amen, amen, I am telling you, it was not Moses who gave you bread from heaven, except it was my Father who gave you the bread of blessing from heaven."
I say, it is very important to translate what is actually there in the Aramaic text, and let others come up with their personal interpretations of what they might think it means.
Also, if John would have wanted it to be given as "the True Bread" or "the True Light", rather than "the Bread of Truth" or "the Light of Truth" he would have written it that way, just as he did in John 4:23 where he gives, "the True Worshipers", rather than "the Worshipers of Truth". The Aramaic words there for "True" in John 4:23 and "Truth" in John 6:32 are distinct words, and shouldn't be confused with each other. Shariyre=true, while Quwstha=Truth.
I say, "Bread of Truth" is what Shlikha John had in mind when he wrote down the words, and what Eshu meant when He said the words, just as in verses 33 and 35.
"Light of Truth" is correct, in John 1:9
But, maybe someone likes to have an English translation of the Aramaic NT, which matches the way it was translated in the Greek text in John 1:9 and John 6:32, and Heb 8:2, rather than how it actually was originally said and written in the Aramaic NT. Not me. I say the words are there for a reason, and how they are given is the way it should be shown. I'm not one who prefers a paraphrase over an actual translation.
We see a pattern in John 6, where verse 32, 33, and 35 respectively, all have it worded as "The Bread of Truth" "The Bread of Alaha" and "The Bread of Life".
These are titles, and should be shown as such, just as John 1:9 should be shown as "The Light of Truth".
A good translation should stick as close to the actual way it is said in the source text, or you can miss the real meaning. It can get rather crazy, as in this case I'm looking at in "The Ancient Roots Translinear Bible" by A Frances Werner. Where they have John 6:32 translated thus: Jesus said to them, "Amen, Amen I say to you: It was not Moses that granted the bread from heaven to you, but my Father granted bread, a rainbow-sign to you from heaven."
Or Victor Alexander's translation of the verse: "Jesus said to them, "Amen, amen, I am telling you, it was not Moses who gave you bread from heaven, except it was my Father who gave you the bread of blessing from heaven."
I say, it is very important to translate what is actually there in the Aramaic text, and let others come up with their personal interpretations of what they might think it means.
Also, if John would have wanted it to be given as "the True Bread" or "the True Light", rather than "the Bread of Truth" or "the Light of Truth" he would have written it that way, just as he did in John 4:23 where he gives, "the True Worshipers", rather than "the Worshipers of Truth". The Aramaic words there for "True" in John 4:23 and "Truth" in John 6:32 are distinct words, and shouldn't be confused with each other. Shariyre=true, while Quwstha=Truth.