Galilean

[ScorpioSniper2]

Paul Younan has dispelled the myth that the New Testament writers commonly quoted the Septuagint. If the quotes match up with the Septuagint, even that does not prove anything. It is far more likely that Jesus made use of the Aramaic Targumim and a pre-Masoretic Tanach. Luke 4:16-20 shows that, unlike most Jewish men of His time, the Messiah could read and speak Hebrew. Jesus almost certainly spoke Aramaic when teaching, and it wouldn't be hard to translate the Hebrew Tanach into the common Aramaic tongue (as was done in the synagogues). Why would Jesus suddenly start spouting out Greek during an Aramaic sermon to a bunch of people who could not speak Greek? According to Josephus, few in Israel could speak Greek very well (including himself). What did Jesus say about the Bible He used?

"For truly I say to you: that until heaven and earth pass away, not one Yodh or one stroke will pass from the law until everything happens."- Matthew 5:18, Younan Aramaic-English Interlinear Gospels

The Greek says iota, but most scholars seem to agree that Jesus was actually referencing the Hebrew/Aramaic letter yodh, which (like iota) is the smallest letter of the language (this is why the King James Version translates iota as "jot"). The Greek language (therefore also the Septuagint) has no yodh letter. The fact that Jesus divided the Tanach into the Law, Prophets, and Writings in Luke 24:44 is also revealing, as He made no mention of the Apocrypha (which is present in the Septuagint).