11-29-2013, 12:18 PM
I've wondered how it is possible why language changes or just not.
I know Armenian people who fled from Armenia, say 15 years ago. Their language was quite different from Armenians who fled during the turkish genocide in about 1917.
There are some Dutch inscriptions, or even the first 'Dutch' Middle-Age inscription, is from England, from a Dutch monk. His Dutch is not understandable to us now.
Why is language more or less static (having stasis) or not? Well, it must be common books who do it. If there is NO writing or no literary culture, language changes very quickly.
But if there is a Tanakh, or other holy book, and that book is used and read by many, language tends to stay the same, right?
When the Dutch Bible translation was made, in the 17th century, the Dutch language more or less changed -hardly- since then. Yes, some words have changed, but any child can with some extra help, understand it.
So, is it possible Aramaic changed so little, because literacy among them was high, and they had holy books and songs?
The same can be said about Hebrew. All over the world, the Hebrew Tanakh is the same and thus, ALL (religious) JEWS share the same grammar and syntax.
I know Armenian people who fled from Armenia, say 15 years ago. Their language was quite different from Armenians who fled during the turkish genocide in about 1917.
There are some Dutch inscriptions, or even the first 'Dutch' Middle-Age inscription, is from England, from a Dutch monk. His Dutch is not understandable to us now.
Why is language more or less static (having stasis) or not? Well, it must be common books who do it. If there is NO writing or no literary culture, language changes very quickly.
But if there is a Tanakh, or other holy book, and that book is used and read by many, language tends to stay the same, right?
When the Dutch Bible translation was made, in the 17th century, the Dutch language more or less changed -hardly- since then. Yes, some words have changed, but any child can with some extra help, understand it.
So, is it possible Aramaic changed so little, because literacy among them was high, and they had holy books and songs?
The same can be said about Hebrew. All over the world, the Hebrew Tanakh is the same and thus, ALL (religious) JEWS share the same grammar and syntax.