11-25-2013, 03:58 AM
First of all, you are still putting false information.
Just like Josephus said, Aramaic (a.k.a Syriac) he spoke was the same spoken in Galilee, in Syria, Lebanon, Iraq, Iran, Jordan, remotest Arabian regions, and beyond Jordan.
The word "aramaith" also mean "Aramaically." The word "Ebraith" also mean "Ebraically." That doesn't mean anything. It is just basically saying that this word was the common word for Hebrews while other word was common word for Arameans.
For Example, the word "Gagultha" was the common word in Judea while "Qarqaptha" was the common word in Galilee, Lebanon, Syria, and other regions. This is just like the word "Eraser" commonly used in America while "rubber" is the word commonly used in England and in India.
Another example is "restroom" is the common word used in America while "toilet" is the common word used in England and in India.
Josephus himself points out the extreme rarity in terms of Jews knowing Greek in first century AD. Second, Greek NT manuscripts are filled with script tamperings and contradictions.
You are using Greek for your misguiding theories just like Bar Kokhba revived Hebrew as a part of his messianic idealogy for misguiding 580,000 people. Greek NT are not reliable.
For example, Codex Sinaiticus and Codex Vaticanus are 2 Greek NT manuscripts highly valued by so called Greek scholars.
According to Greek Scholar Herman C. Hoskier in his book "Codex B and it Allies" (1914) volume 2, there are 3,036 textual variations between Greek NT manuscript "Codex Sinaiticus" and Greek NT manuscript "Codex Vaticanus" in the text of the Gospels alone, enumerated as follows: Matthew: 656, Mark: 567, Luke: 791, John: 1022.
On the top of this, these manuscripts have tamperings (For Example, Matthew 27:9) and errors. Josephus himself criticized Greek scholars for neglecting the real truth of historical facts (Jewish Wars, Preface, Paragraph 5).
Just like Josephus said, Aramaic (a.k.a Syriac) he spoke was the same spoken in Galilee, in Syria, Lebanon, Iraq, Iran, Jordan, remotest Arabian regions, and beyond Jordan.
The word "aramaith" also mean "Aramaically." The word "Ebraith" also mean "Ebraically." That doesn't mean anything. It is just basically saying that this word was the common word for Hebrews while other word was common word for Arameans.
For Example, the word "Gagultha" was the common word in Judea while "Qarqaptha" was the common word in Galilee, Lebanon, Syria, and other regions. This is just like the word "Eraser" commonly used in America while "rubber" is the word commonly used in England and in India.
Another example is "restroom" is the common word used in America while "toilet" is the common word used in England and in India.
Josephus himself points out the extreme rarity in terms of Jews knowing Greek in first century AD. Second, Greek NT manuscripts are filled with script tamperings and contradictions.
You are using Greek for your misguiding theories just like Bar Kokhba revived Hebrew as a part of his messianic idealogy for misguiding 580,000 people. Greek NT are not reliable.
For example, Codex Sinaiticus and Codex Vaticanus are 2 Greek NT manuscripts highly valued by so called Greek scholars.
According to Greek Scholar Herman C. Hoskier in his book "Codex B and it Allies" (1914) volume 2, there are 3,036 textual variations between Greek NT manuscript "Codex Sinaiticus" and Greek NT manuscript "Codex Vaticanus" in the text of the Gospels alone, enumerated as follows: Matthew: 656, Mark: 567, Luke: 791, John: 1022.
On the top of this, these manuscripts have tamperings (For Example, Matthew 27:9) and errors. Josephus himself criticized Greek scholars for neglecting the real truth of historical facts (Jewish Wars, Preface, Paragraph 5).