Two aramaic words but one in greek?

[Paul Younan]

The problem with these is that since they are sort of "reverse split words", Greek primacists can claim them as split words that prove Greek primacy...

Unless we demonstrate that there's a good reason for the Multple Aramaic words. For instance, the two words for "priest" - Jesus would never be called a "Kahna" because that's the line of Aaron. But he would be called a "Kumra" - since that just means "priest" and not "Aaronic priest."

The Greek language does not have a need to have these two words for "priest". And in this case, the Aramaic is clearly superior because it conveys more information. And translations rarely convey more information than the originals.

With the Greek split-words, however - it's not the same thing at all. There's no good reason why they split these words. <!-- s --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/happy.gif" alt="" title="Happy" /><!-- s -->

In other words, what I'm trying to say is that Multiple-Inheritance is not the opposite of Polysemy - it is a valuable tool for us !