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Semitic Syntax: Not Strong Evidence?
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ScorpioSniper2 Wrote:Can anyone offer to me an explanation as to why the Aramaic syntax used in the Greek New Testament is evidence for Aramaic primacy?

Shlama Akhi,

A quick question: How successful do you suppose Joseph Smith would have been in convincing people of the truth of Mormonism, if the scrolls he had revealed were written in Ebonics ?

If the Apostles meant to evangelize Greek-speaking areas of the world, why would they spread their message in a non-standard and uneducated Greek ?

+Shamasha
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Re: Semitic Syntax: Not Strong Evidence? - by Paul Younan - 11-18-2013, 03:32 AM

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