11-18-2013, 03:32 AM
ScorpioSniper2 Wrote:Can anyone offer to me an explanation as to why the Aramaic syntax used in the Greek New Testament is evidence for Aramaic primacy?
Shlama Akhi,
A quick question: How successful do you suppose Joseph Smith would have been in convincing people of the truth of Mormonism, if the scrolls he had revealed were written in Ebonics ?
If the Apostles meant to evangelize Greek-speaking areas of the world, why would they spread their message in a non-standard and uneducated Greek ?
+Shamasha