Thread Rating:
  • 0 Vote(s) - 0 Average
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
  • 5
Semitic Syntax: Not Strong Evidence?
#1
While I find polesemy, wordplay, poetry and the mistranslations to be strong evidence of an Aramaic original behind the Greek New Testament, I don't see why Semitic syntax used in the Greek New Testament shows that there is an Aramaic original behind the Greek. It just doesn't seem like a great argument to me. The Septuagint is good evidence for this argument, as it has a very Semitic flavor to its Greek (much like that of the Greek New Testament), but a Greek primacist could simply say that the Greek grammar of the Septuagint influenced the authors of the New Testament. Can anyone offer to me an explanation as to why the Aramaic syntax used in the Greek New Testament is evidence for Aramaic primacy?
Reply


Messages In This Thread
Semitic Syntax: Not Strong Evidence? - by ScorpioSniper2 - 11-17-2013, 10:47 AM

Forum Jump:


Users browsing this thread: 1 Guest(s)