10-25-2013, 11:52 AM
Thirdwoe Wrote:If I'm wrong, show me where it isn't the original form of the wording, as it was seen in the 1st century, and given by the Apostles to the Church of the East. Do you have an example where you think it isn't the original words? Let's look at it if so.
Well, there are inherent subtle differences in dialect between Matthew and the other gospels. Which one is the original wording? It seems that Luke used more common Aramaic, while Matthew was using more native Jewish Aramaic.
There is also a different wording at all between the gospels. So, this begs the question, which line did Jeshua exactly say?
Tell you what? It does not matter really.
If you believe that Yeshua today still speaks to people who seek him, I've not heard once a witnessing that Yeshua complained to somebody about our todays Bible translations. Something he could do, if the 'original wording' is so important.