Thread Rating:
  • 0 Vote(s) - 0 Average
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
  • 5
Evangelion da-Mepharreshe. Authentic or Greek translation
I have the wish to make a proof of the following statement.

The evangelion da-Mephareshe is a translation of Greek and at some places, the translator managed even to match the word-plays we find in the Peshitta.
But I would need a lot of more evidence to this.

This one is interesting. In Aramaic, there is a specific idiom 'b yideh' which means 'by his hand', or when stripped of the idiom 'through him'. The Greek does not have this idiom b'yideh but it would have something like 'panta dia autos' (everything was through him).

Now the interesting thing is: If a translator would translate from Greek to Aramaic, he would not just translate using idiom where it does not exist in the source-language. Because it is perfect Aramaic (as well) to write 'kul medem' (all through him). And this is exactly what we have in the evangelion da mepharreshe. "kul medem" and not "kul b'iydeh"
What do you think about this evidence?

<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href=""> ... 5/mode/2up</a><!-- m -->
It was my understanding that this text was not an exclusive translation of the Greek text, but a revision of the original form of the Eastern Peshitta, with the Greek text at hand to make it more conformable to it.
We cannot be sure bro
<!-- sSmile --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/smile.gif" alt="Smile" title="Smile" /><!-- sSmile -->
<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href=""> ... syriac.htm</a><!-- m -->
Quote:* - The Old Syriac shares many similarities with the Western Greek text (aka Codex Bezae, aka Manuscript D) as textual critic Dr James Trimm demonstrates. And the Western Greek text seems to be an early Greek translation of the Peshitta as indicated by its ?Semiticness? (the NT authors were all Semites after all) and its variants with other Greek manuscripts, which stem from mistranslations/misunderstandings of the original Peshitta passages (split words).

I just found a 100% Greek compliant translation, which does not exist in the Peshitta. Why would Tatian strip Semitic idiom if the da-Meharreshe was meant for semitic people (the Assyrians and the Syrians?) or why would the supposed Peshitta 'translators' add such idiom if it was not in the source language?

Forum Jump:

Users browsing this thread: 1 Guest(s)