09-19-2013, 10:56 AM
bknight Wrote:That would be relevant if GNT was written in "proper" Greek, but every language scholar that studies it agrees the 27 books of the Greek New Testament are some of the poorest examples of Greek grammar that have managed to survive from that time period..
Figure that. One issue is the usage of the definitive article 'o'. The Greek NT manuscripts have a lot of variances there. And why? Because Aramaic does not have a definite article at all, so it is up to the translator to add the article or not. This explains the 'chaotic' usage of definitive article in the GNT, and the Bible Scholars really cannot make up a grammatical rule for it <!-- s
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