06-18-2013, 01:40 AM
verlan Wrote:Hello Jeremy
I think, the "PDF" translation is correct.
Grammatical case is dative, it is very clear - jews speak to Jesus
Shlama,
i honestly don't think any person on this site who reads Aramaic is going to agree with you on this one. the word LAHUN is plural, so there is no way they can speak to Him if the word means "to them." there's only one Messiah - they can't be speaking to multiple Messiah's. the Aramaic literally reads: "Said to them Eshu', '...." a more fluid English translation would obviously be "Eshu' said to them, '...." if you don't believe me, ask one of the native Aramaic speakers on this site like Paul Younan, if the PDF is accurate. i'm not a native speaker, but i can read the Aramaic.
but, if you want to be staunch that it is the Jewish people speaking to Jesus, then you have the right to that opinion. even still, the rest of the PDF's assertion of the "correct" translation of John 8:58 is just flat wrong. please don't think for a moment it is correct.
Chayim b'Moshiach,
Jeremy