An important distinction in the Aramaic text

[IPOstapyuk]

It looks to me the more people get into this subject the more it becomes complicated.
After exploring of this subject I came to conclusion.
I believe that mar and marya both mean lord.
mar
Eph. 6:4-5
[font="Estrangelo (V1.1)"]rsbbd Jwkyrml w9mt40 0db9 Jrmd 0nplwybw[/font]
[font="Estrangelo (V1.1)"]Jrm[/font]
[font="Estrangelo (V1.1)"]Jwkyrml[/font]
Eph. 6:9
[font="Estrangelo (V1.1)"]0ym4b Yhwty0 JwklydJwkrm P0d...0yrm Jwtn0 P0[/font]
[font="Estrangelo (V1.1)"]0yrm[/font] - maraye (plural)
[font="Estrangelo (V1.1)"]0yrm[/font] - maraya(marya) (singular)

On the other side in Greek and Latin texts we have kyrios, dominos which both mean lord.
So, if contemporaries of the Apostles knew that marya mean lord then do we think that we know better than these contempraries? I do not think so.

No wonder that LXX translated YHWY as Kyrios and Hebrew Bible carries it as Adonay,
Targum use something YY.
If Helleluya has word ending spell YH
and marya has same sound ya but word ending spell YA
that do not look even alike.
How some think that based on sound think that YA means YHWY?
What a doctrine is this? I do not agree.