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Were some parts of the Peshitta altered?
Problematic on its surface and one must dig to find a possible answer. I dug a little below the surface to see what I could find...

I haven't checked it myself, but David Bauscher says that at least one Western Greek Ms. has the Peshitta reading for Matthew 28:18.

Also, the Diatessaron shows that it was present in the text of Matthew which Tatian used to make his harmony of the Gospels in about 155 A.D. Tatian's Diatessaron has both the long reading of Matt 28:18 and the like reading as found in John 20:21, in their proper place, so, clearly he had both readings present in his very early copies of the Gospels, which I believe were Aramaic texts.

As David Bauscher points out, this could mean that there was only ONE Greek translation made of the Aramaic source text, and that the Aramaic Ms. used, either lacked that portion of the verse, or the Scribe simply missed it, and the majority of the Greek copies followed the mistake unknowingly. But not seems. Perhaps the one Western Ms. which has the long Peshitta reading is a copy of an early revision of the Greek, made by comparing a Greek text against the Aramaic, and fixed the mistake. It?s Possible.



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Re: Were some parts of the Peshitta altered? - by Thirdwoe - 04-23-2013, 02:51 AM

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