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Were some parts of the Peshitta altered?
Thirdwoe Wrote::

I respect it, if nothing else for the simple fact that it makes sense in the Aramaic text, in the verse and in the passage's context. The Greek version doesn't, but rather is awkward and senseless, and misses the context altogether. Greek primacists have noticed it for hundreds of years, and try to give their varied explanations for the awkward reading.

I agree Akhi, it makes no sense at all in the Greek, especially considering the very next verse.

And bar-Sinko was incorrect in his quote above, Reshyana is indeed an adjective, but the noun follows the exact same pattern as the adjective in the III-weak. It can be a noun meaning "blameless (one)".


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Re: Were some parts of the Peshitta altered? - by Paul Younan - 04-21-2013, 01:22 AM

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