Were some parts of the Peshitta altered?

[DrawCloser]

Hi,

After seeing the D. Bauscher [DSS] thing, could this be a mistake from Aramaic-to-Aramaic?

Not to say that i believe in Greek primacy or anything, but it may be entirely possible that an Aramaic copyist caused the change. Meaning, an Aramaic writer that copied the Aramaic NT from Aramaic to Aramaic may have misread that word, or may have (consciously or subconsciously) thought that it must be a mistake, and corrected it (since "righteous" makes much more immediate sense in the context). There is no reason for us to think that greek writers have less reading skills than Aramaic ones.

And regarding the posted link, consider this:

Now the Aramaic Primacy argument is that Zorba confused this word reshey'a with reshyana, since the only difference between them is that the ein has been replaced with a nun, which look very similar in Estrangelo. The argument goes that reshyana means "righteous/blameless", so that's how the mistranslation came about.
...
However, reshyana does not actually mean "blameless". It means "blame" or "accusation". The phrase similar to it that means "blameless" is dla reshyan. This means that Zorba's eyes would have had not only to change an ein into a nun but also to ignore the alap on the end and add the word dla before it. Then, it means "blameless" and can be mistranslated into the Greek.
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Now this is a much less solid argument than originally presented. Akhan Andrew doesn't even mention reshyana in his AENT. He claims that Zorba confused reshey'a with zadiyqa, but these words don't look at all similar.

Would the Peshitta manuscript reading be worthy of being suspected / distrusted?