04-11-2013, 01:19 AM
First off, I don't believe Greek primacy, but I ask...
It says in Hebrew, Greek, and Roman for his sign....
First question, why was Greek written if it really was not spoken in the land?
Secondly, why Hebrew, when most people probably only knew Aramaic?
Thanks
~DC
It says in Hebrew, Greek, and Roman for his sign....
First question, why was Greek written if it really was not spoken in the land?
Secondly, why Hebrew, when most people probably only knew Aramaic?
Thanks
~DC