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hi 1 john 4-12 days no one has seen god at any time:'. but when john wrote this , thiswas not true. jesus had come in the flesh and moses had seen god. is this one of the books that was not on the early canon of the aramaic catholic church ?
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hi 1john 4-12 ' no one has seen god at any time'. that was the verse i meant to type above, in the post before.
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1st John was always part of The Peshitta...and It's true, God has only revealed Himself in and through His Son...1st, via The pre-incarnate Word of God, through which He created all things and spoke through the Prophets, then, when The Word/Son of God became flesh and dwelt among us, He being the visable image of the invisable God. In Christ, we see God, The Father. But none have seen Him/The Father, directly.
Also, Christ says something similar as recorded in the Gospel of John.
John 6:46 "No one has seen the Father except the one who is from God; only he has seen the Father." <--- speaking of The Word/Son of God, who comes from The Father.
Shlama,
Chuck
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Amen, Chuck. We cannot see God in His spiritual essence, for God is Spirit. God can be seen only if He reveals Himself to you. God's ultimate revelation of Himself was given in the incarnation.
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hi ok ,what are the western five then , which books were they?