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Matthew 7:29 Help needed
Hello again,

I have a question about Matthew 7:29. In the Aramaic it is written:

for he taught them as one having authority; and not as their Scribes and Pharisees.

In the majority texts of the Greek I find:

For he taught them as [one] having authority, and not as the scribes.

Curiously the Latin Vulgate agrees with the Peshitta:

For he was teaching them as one having power, and not as the scribes and Pharisees.

Does the word Pharisees show up in ANY minority Greek manuscripts at all?

Thank you again for your attention in this matter.
Yes, there are some important Greek copies that have it as well. Also, the Diatessaron {170 A.D}. has the reading.

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Thank you very, very much Thirdwoe. <!-- s:lol: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/laugh.gif" alt=":lol:" title="Laugh" /><!-- s:lol: -->

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