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"Golgotha" <=> "Gabbatha" <=> "........."
#1
Hello everyone-
There is a huge Word Play that needs to be explored concerning "Those Hebrew Words which are translated as ...".

***As usual, I'm not here to challenge anyone's beliefs. I'm trying to do research. I'm not pushing Koine Greek from The Decapolis or a "Latin Origin Theory" or anything. Research!...***

Everyone knows of "Golgotha" and a few know that John uses the word "Gabbatha". John's use of this word is a one time use, BTW. It's not found anywhere else.
Notice that these words are very similar in form: "Gol(g) - otha" and "Gabb - atha".

Now, take a moment to look at the emperors named in the "Year of the Four Emperors": "Galba", "Otho", "Vitellius" and "Vespasian".

Does anyone see a relationship between "Golgotha", "Gabbatha" and the first two names in the Year of the Four Emperors?

As in:

"Golgotha" <=> "Gabbatha" <=> "Galba-Otho"?

Charles
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#2
More info:

Bauscher (Is he an OK resource around here?) states, concerning "Gabbatha":

"R"Tsiftha d'Kaypha" & "Gpiptha" are in Northern (Galilean) and Southern (Judean) dialects of Palestinian Aramaic. Both names mean "The Pavement". The Greek has "Gabbatha" [[Greek given]], another obvious transliteration of the Aramaic ("Gpiptha") [[Aramaic given]], in which the letter "Pe" [[Ar. given]] was mistaken for a "Beth" [[Ar. given]], easily done with square Aramaic script. This does not work in a Greek to Aramaic translation scenario. "Gabbatha") [[Gr. given]] would not be mistaken for ("Gipitha") [[Ar. given]]"

Bauscher, _Original Aramaic..._, p. 227.

In another thread that I'm now starting to enjoy, a question is asked, "Would Greek translators intentionally mis-translate a passage?"
Yes! I'm trying to find out if this (and "Golgotha") are intentionally misleading, misleading to the point of becoming a composition, a "writing over" of a previously seen story.
I believe that these 2 words were "so much alike" words to give a Greek audience a sense of "understanding" of something that wasn't there.

Remember, Jesus tells the "Lunatic" (Who is by this time CLOTHED and in his right senses), that he must return to his home, The Decapolis, a league of ten Greek cities. The Lunatic is to tell the people there how the Lord took pity on him. If you are looking for an explanation of how a Greek formulation of an Aramaic Story might have occurred, it's right there. The question is, "What Story might have been covered over?" What ARAMAIC Story?

Charles
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